mikejs78
Well-Known Member
Yes, but the First Amendment doesn't mean what it literally means.
Take, for example, something as apparently simple as "freedom of speech":
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.
As we all understand, there are limitations on free speech, even though this is not stated in the text. Some forms of speech are not protected. Congress can pass some laws limiting speech.
Similarly, and as I've previously described, for 200 years corporate political speech rights were more limited than individual political speech rights. Corporate political speech rights have changed, and relatively recently.
There are hundreds of court cases refining free speech. It's an incredibly complex subject..
Thanks for making my point.
The First Amendment does not mention “protected speech”.
Free Speech is much more complex than just the text in the Constitution.
You're right of course about it being nuanced. But the topic at hand is political speech, which is probably the most protected from of speech given that the original intent of 1A was to protect political speech, and political speech has always had the highest form of scrutiny in the courts, especially around the realm of stating a political opinion or advocating for or against a piece of legislation. Where there has been disagreement and questions around political speech is in cases where speech went beyond mere words (e.g. flag burning) or in the financial realm (e.g. Citizens).
I also don't agree with the assertion that corporate political speech rights were more limited for 200 years. Most of the court cases dealing with corporate speech before the 1970s dealt with non-political corporate speech (e.g. advertising), which even today courts have ruled only receive intermediate scrutiny. The fact is that corporate political speech rights were never really challenged in court until the 70s. So to say that corporate political speech rights didn't exist is not quite accurate - it's more accurate to say they hadn't been defined one way or another. Either way, Citizens was contentious because it dealt with money, or non-verbal speech. You can go all the way back to 1886, Santa Clara County v. Southern Pacific Railroad, to see the court refer to the personhood of a corporation.
It's also worth noting that it wasn't until the 1930s that the supreme court started running on individual 1A cases and offering judicial protection - does that mean individuals were not afforded free speech rights until the 1930s? No, it just wasn't a question and it wasn't brought to suit because the nature of the country was different.
Citizens established the right of corporations in regards to campaign finance. But the right to express an opinion on issues by a corporation unrelated to finance, was established much earlier.