eliza61nyc
Well-Known Member
Well yes.......otherwise why go to Epcot after? Why go there if MK is fully sufficient? The answer is because each park has strengths and weaknesses. No one park is sound especially at WDW
Totally illogical.
first, in order to compare the "soundness" of the parks to one another, each park would have to be similar. they are not, were not made to be similar nor offer the same experience.
Next you have to have some type of barometer, what are you using to measure each park by? what are you using to determine "weakness". roller coasters? live shows? 3D shows? food choices? exactly what?
Sufficient to who? who are your test subjects? families with babies, teenagers? old people? You say you rarely hop in Anaheim, can you say the rest of us would not hop either? I may get to Anaheim and hop my heart away then what?
Next, you are ascertaining that Disney invented park hopping because they knew the parks were insufficient. what do you have to back that up?
sorry you cannot question people intelligence when you entire concept is flawed, without structure nor measurable merit.
this is what we call that the post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy. You are assuming that since people park hop, it must be caused by poor theme parks because if the theme parks weren't poor people wouldn't park hop. that is a fallacy, you are basing a conclusion on YOUR feelings and not a darn thing studied.
Last edited: