The reason why I said this discussion was thought-provoking in the first place is the idea that Disney has been given special privileges beyond what they would have a right to under law (such as the right to free speech).
Do other entities in Florida enjoy some of the same special privileges? Yes. As many have pointed out, there are nearly 2,000 special districts in Florida.
That does not change the fact that Disney is in no way entitled under the law to the special privileges that RCID affords them.
If the state decides to remove the special privileges from Disney, or anyone else, that is their prerogative, just as it was to grant them in the first place. Again, this is because no company/person has a right under any law, state or federal, to the privileges a special district affords them. The act
alone of stripping a company of it's special district does not deprive Disney of any rights.
The question then becomes, and I think this is what Klavan was getting at, when a court examines this on first amendment grounds, can the case be made that Disney was retaliated against by removing something which they are not entitled to under law? I don't think that is as clear cut as some would claim on this thread.
If the state were to, for example, deny Disney the tax incentive for the Lake Nona campus because the GOP majority/governorship wasn't happy with their opinion on the parental rights bill, that would be depriving Disney of something they are
entitled to under the law. If you meet the criteria for the tax credit, you are entitled to the tax credit. That isn't the case here. Special districts are generally created by the legislature; there is nothing in the statutes that says that when an entity meets the criteria for forming a special district that they are entitled to become one, as it requires the approval of (generally) the legislature.
Again, when push comes to shove, the courts will likely side with RCID/Disney, given just how much is on the record regarding the motivation behind dissolving the district (and the various complaints about wokeness and such), and Ellis' citation of 1A jurisprudence which holds that the "chilling of speech" can be the basis for proving that one's 1A rights were violated.
The only questions on my mind are: can taking away something Disney has no right to in the first place be considered "chilling of speech?" and if so, if Disney isn't RCID, but RCID is what was taken away, can Disney still prove they were wronged? That's why we have courts, and stranger opinions have been rendered.