Clarification: You're saying that Iger gutted recession proofing by (using your example) raising the price of a hypothetical family's WDW vacation in good times from $3000 to $4000. So when recession kicks in they will choose to save by not going on the trip?
So under the pre-Iger scheme, are you saying that this family would be paying $3000 in good times and would continue to pay $3000 during a recession? But under the Iger scheme, this family would be paying $4000 in good times and would cancel their trip to WDW unless it was discounted to $2000? Or are you saying that under both schemes, the hypothetical family would only go on their WDW trip during a recession for $2000? And that to Wall Street, a 33% drop to the top line is better than 50% drop from a higher base?
Thanks in advance for the explanation.