Win or Lose (Lease / Rent vs Buy)

RustySpork

Oscar Mayer Memer
Original Poster
We've gone from a Bugatti, to a Porsche, to positive equity in a 24 month time span..with ZERO down payment at a 4% apr?!?!?!, now people leasing who drive 40k miles per year.

I'm going to chose thinking that it's all just to get people to respond.lol

Who said anything about a 4% APR? That's the second time you've mentioned it, but you're the only one who has. Don't forget the Acura RSX, that was an example I used against your leasing is better argument too.
 

flynnibus

Premium Member
So, just so I understand, you are saying that when you're done with your loan and have the title in hand that you don't own the car you've paid off. Got it.

You are comparing a lease vs a conventional 4-5 year loan. You are comparing apples and peaches. If you want to say its a 36month loan... then you need to face the fact the leasee has only had an outlay of about 1/5th that the buyer has. Yes the buyer has residual value... but it's not realized value till they sell. You aren't comparing the same thing.

You don't own the car, right, I've said that before. You own value in that car though because you've paid the bank back for that amount. They have a net zero transaction, you don't. That's my whole point. Thanks for getting on board!

The car's value is not the only thing you need to account for.. and that's where your ponzi scheme and explaination falls apart. The fact the leasee doesn't have a car at the end is meaningless... because neither do if you want to realize the value in that car. You want to have your cake and eat it too... claiming you have the value from the car and the car at the same time without recognizing your liability as negative value against that car.

Maybe this logic works when you talk fast to one of your buddies.. but it doesn't fly here.

So, what happens if you owe less than the car is worth and you wreck but you don't have GAP?

And what's the price of tea in china? This is an independent criteria that means nothing to the discussion.

No you didn't. You claimed 20% depreciation using bad math. The real percentage was 15%. Sorry, bad math doesn't mean you're right. Which post did you show real typical depreciation?

You need reading lessons. The 20% number was included as a 'typical' number.. followed up by TWO specific examples using real numbers from Edmunds that proved 20% was actually in the band... not too good, not too bad. The cites were for a 2017 porsche (to address your 'high value car' example) and a ford fusion to address the far more average scenario.

Am I? What was the target purchase this whole time? I'll wait.

This doesn't even make sense to the text quoted.

Why? If I have $20K in value in my trade why shouldn't I use it?

Because unlike your 'free energy' buying guidance... you need to keep contributing more to convert that car into a new equivalent or better. You shun another model as 'burning money'... then preach how continual transactions is better... which throws the highest percentage of money away out of any model.

You really should rethink the guidance someone gave you and what your true principles you are trying to follow are. If you just want a new car every 3 years... that's fine.. but its probably the biggest bonefire of money you can come up with.
 

RustySpork

Oscar Mayer Memer
Original Poster
You are comparing a lease vs a conventional 4-5 year loan. You are comparing apples and peaches. If you want to say its a 36month loan... then you need to face the fact the leasee has only had an outlay of about 1/5th that the buyer has. Yes the buyer has residual value... but it's not realized value till they sell. You aren't comparing the same thing.

I'm comparing it to a simple interest loan. It's realized when they sell which includes trading. That's what I have said all along.


The car's value is not the only thing you need to account for.. and that's where your ponzi scheme and explaination falls apart. The fact the leasee doesn't have a car at the end is meaningless... because neither do if you want to realize the value in that car. You want to have your cake and eat it too... claiming you have the value from the car and the car at the same time without recognizing your liability as negative value against that car.

Ponzi scheme? That's a hoot. You're making some nice assumptions there, which are of course false. That's nice.

And what's the price of tea in china? This is an independent criteria that means nothing to the discussion.

Oh it does, because it causes your story to fall apart. If you total the car, what happens?

You need reading lessons. The 20% number was included as a 'typical' number.. followed up by TWO specific examples using real numbers from Edmunds that proved 20% was actually in the band... not too good, not too bad. The cites were for a 2017 porsche (to address your 'high value car' example) and a ford fusion to address the far more average scenario.

You gave two numbers that math calculated at 15% even though you claimed 20%.

This doesn't even make sense to the text quoted.

Of course not because if you admit that, you'll be wrong.

Because unlike your 'free energy' buying guidance... you need to keep contributing more to convert that car into a new equivalent or better. You shun another model as 'burning money'... then preach how continual transactions is better... which throws the highest percentage of money away out of any model.

You're really stuck on this free energy stuff. I said both models burned money, try paying attention.

You really should rethink the guidance someone gave you and what your true principles you are trying to follow are. If you just want a new car every 3 years... that's fine.. but its probably the biggest bonefire of money you can come up with.

Sure it is. :rolleyes: :hilarious:
 

flynnibus

Premium Member
It's not? No kidding. I'm pretty sure I did this math a page or two ago. Actually, I'm sure when I said "take $1 from the pile and burn it" I was talking about exactly this.

No, you are taking $1, burning it.. then throwing 3 more in.. then burning 1 of those... and repeating... but arguing you only burned $1 the whole time and ignoring you've put far more in the pile than your first $4
 

RustySpork

Oscar Mayer Memer
Original Poster
No, you are taking $1, burning it.. then throwing 3 more in.. then burning 1 of those... and repeating... but arguing you only burned $1 the whole time and ignoring you've put far more in the pile than your first $4

Where did I ever say that I only burned $1 the whole time? Please show me.
 

flynnibus

Premium Member
Where did I ever say that I only burned $1 the whole time? Please show me.

When you tried to argue you had money AND a car while the leasee had no car. You said the leasee doesn't have a car... but your buyer has a car AND realized the residual value of their car (because you claim the net of the sale and loan balance).

You can't have it both ways... you either have a car with unrealized value and are down a bunch of cash.. or you sold the car and have the net value. You don't have the cash AND car... unless you've burnt another dollar on another trade.
 

RustySpork

Oscar Mayer Memer
Original Poster
When you tried to argue you had money AND a car while the leasee had no car. You said the leasee doesn't have a car... but your buyer has a car AND realized the residual value of their car (because you claim the net of the sale and loan balance).

You can't have it both ways... you either have a car with unrealized value and are down a bunch of cash.. or you sold the car and have the net value. You don't have the cash AND car... unless you've burnt another dollar on another trade.

What? You're not even close. I never said the leasee didn't have the car. I said the leasee couldn't keep the car unless they bought it at the end of the lease. I also never said that you didn't burn any more on trade. You've made all that up.
 

flynnibus

Premium Member
What? You're not even close. I never said the leasee didn't have the car. I said the leasee couldn't keep the car unless they bought it at the end of the lease. I also never said that you didn't burn any more on trade. You've made all that up.

No, it's called reality raining on your parade.
 

RustySpork

Oscar Mayer Memer
Original Poster
The only one who hasn't seen the facts is you @RustySpork

Let us know when you return to our planet... until then.. I think we've covered this 4x over already. We're done here.

I see the facts, let me lay a couple of them out for you.

Fact #1: You say lots of things, and those things "are true" simply because you say so.
Fact #2: You distort and divert to avoid providing evidence of your claims when challenged.
Fact #3: You continue to claim that I'm wrong without evidence.
Fact #4: You'll continue to try to control the conversation by replying and telling me I'm wrong, or crazy, or whatever so you can be "right".

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:joyfull:
 

contrariwise

Well-Known Member
When you tried to argue you had money AND a car while the leasee had no car. You said the leasee doesn't have a car... but your buyer has a car AND realized the residual value of their car (because you claim the net of the sale and loan balance).

You can't have it both ways... you either have a car with unrealized value and are down a bunch of cash.. or you sold the car and have the net value. You don't have the cash AND car... unless you've burnt another dollar on another trade.

You mean "lessee".
 

Laketravis

Well-Known Member
I may have missed this but I haven't seen any discussion beyond the initial lease period. The equation doesn't stop at 36 months. What does our theoretical consumer do when they return the vehicle at the end of the lease period? Do they begin using public transportation at no additional cost or do they repeat the lease cycle with another vehicle? Personally, I tend to buy vehicles with high resale value and keep them for 7-8 years while putting 15K-25K miles a year on them. The equivalent of three 36 month lease terms would be a far more expensive proposition for me. Even when I reduce ownership duration to 5-6 years, the equivalent two leasing cycles plus excessive mileage charges still works out to more than outright purchase. Nor did I calculate any additional savings by exercising the purchase option at the end of the first lease cycle.
 
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Goofyernmost

Well-Known Member
Yea, well I'm starting to scare the hell out of 70 years old. I can't even order a 3 minute egg anymore unless I pay in advance. Leasing is the best alternative for me. The depreciation of a brand new car right after you leave the new car lot is higher then what it would cost me to do a new and different lease. I would, like I always did, be tempted to hang on to my "owned" car longer then was fiscally wise in an effort to "save" more money and eventually blow it just doing repairs needed to maintain any value at all. Leasing a car for 3 years with a 3 year bumper to bumper warrantee and a smaller monthly payment then would be needed if I bought, is the way for me to go. At the end of three years, if I am still able to drive, I get a brand new car to drive for 3 years with only a leasing fee. What I am basically paying in lease payments is very close to what the depreciation amount will be over those 3 years.

The, so called, "equity" is only the amount that the dealer will actually give you or what you can get on a straight sale and is based on the actual condition of the car. All the "Blue Books" in the world are only ballparking the value. Most of the time you get much less then what those lists tell you the cars are worth. It boils down to what the car is worth to the people that you're selling it too or trading it for.
 

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